separation of church and state….left behind in 1545

(still editing for continuity & is subject to updates)

The First Amendment to the United States Constitution, which
is part of the United States Bill of Rights, expressly forbids
laws enacted in that “respecting an establishment of religion”
and that prohibit the free exercise of religion.

The argument that just because a majority of religious organizations
may believe that gay marriage, the states not grant those rights,
it is not the state’s obligation to observe their opinions on this matter.
Thus, according to this argument, the state has no authority
to define marriage.

The fact is prior to 1545; marriage was more or less a business agreement
between two families who arranged the marriages of their children.
Romantic love, and even simple affection, not considered essential.
It was not until the Protestant colleagues reformulated Christian marriage by enacting the Marriage Ordinance of Geneva. Moreover, later the Act required a marriage ceremony to be officiated by an Anglican priest
in the Anglican Church with two witnesses and registration.

The Counter-Reformation & Catholic revival from the pontificate of Pope Pius IV in 1560 is the foundation on which use as reason for ruling against
same sex marriage.

There is nothing wrong with individuals or churches treating marriage
as sacred or sacramental, but this is not a valid response, in debate
about what individuals or private institutions should be doing.
It is a debate about how the government should treat people and how the laws on marriage should authored. Is there any obligation on the part of the government to define civil marriages in a manner that does
not conflict with religious conceptions of the same?

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